lovingboth: (Default)
Ian ([personal profile] lovingboth) wrote2003-12-22 01:50 pm
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Non-payment of a prostitute = rape?

Three separate places are currently debating this one. What do you think?

[Poll #223691]

[identity profile] uran.livejournal.com 2003-12-22 06:43 am (UTC)(link)
Yes. Try getting someone who isn't a sexworker to recognise that though.
Money takes the place of consent. With no money, there is no consent. Who's the fool turning tricks without getting the money first, though? Perhaps they're a 'trusted' client who rips them off, I got done for $100 that way last week. I did get the other $550 out of him first, though, and I justified it by reasoning he'd brought champagne. It's lying to myself as he's an otherwise good client who spends much but often short changes me $50 or so. There's no sex, he just likes me fisting him. Next time I might just not cut my nails before he arrives and accidentally spike him once or twice. Grr to him!

I'd like to know how that's *not* rape.

[identity profile] chaoticerotic.livejournal.com 2003-12-22 07:53 am (UTC)(link)
By letting him shortchange you often, you set a precendent.

But if you feel reasonably alright with what you do profit, no harm.

I'd like to know how that's *not* rape. This statement confuses me...especially if the shortchanging is recurring (assuming that is what you were referring to)

[identity profile] uran.livejournal.com 2003-12-22 08:22 am (UTC)(link)
I wish I could edit comments - that last line was misplaced. It was referring to the poll on it's own.

[identity profile] chaoticerotic.livejournal.com 2003-12-22 11:26 am (UTC)(link)
ah....that makes much more sense.