The consent was conditional, though, and the conditions subsequently weren't met. I don't know the legal definition of rape well enough to comment, though. As to whether it's morally 'rape', that would depend on an agreed moral defintion of 'rape' the existence of which I'm not aware of. It is in the same moral ball-park, to my mind.
Agreed. If it were a simple case of non-payment of services, that would be to say that prostitutes only provide services and nothing more. If that's the case, why are they so frowned upon as a whole? Something more is going on, or maybe pop will eat itself. It's too late to be having this discussion with myself :)
What about the case of the girl who is waiting till marriage, but decided to sleep with her fiance as they were going to get married, so that would be 'alright'. does it then become rape a year down the line when he decideds that he doesn't want to marry her?
if so, would it still be the case if she now thought waiting till marriage was a mugs game? The conditions of the initial act would still be broken.
As it happens, one of the cases the judges in the definitive case in England & Wales looked at involved a man in Australia arranging a fake wedding ceremony in order to have sex with the woman!
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If it were a simple case of non-payment of services, that would be to say that prostitutes only provide services and nothing more. If that's the case, why are they so frowned upon as a whole? Something more is going on, or maybe pop will eat itself. It's too late to be having this discussion with myself :)
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What about the case of the girl who is waiting till marriage, but decided to sleep with her fiance as they were going to get married, so that would be 'alright'. does it then become rape a year down the line when he decideds that he doesn't want to marry her?
if so, would it still be the case if she now thought waiting till marriage was a mugs game? The conditions of the initial act would still be broken.
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